English
1. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), ( 2. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), ( 3. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), ( 4. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), ( 5. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), ( 6. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), ( 7. Directions : item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), ( 8. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), ( 9. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), ( 10. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), ( 11. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of wo 12. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of wo 13. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of wo 14. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of wo 15. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of wo 16. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of wo 17. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of wo 18. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of wo 19. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of wo 20. Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of wo 21. Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These 22. Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. T 23. Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. T 24. Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. T 25. Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. T 26. Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. T 27. Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. T 28. Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. T 29. Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. T 30. Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. T 31. Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to 32. Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to 33. Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to 34. Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to 35. Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to 36. Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to 37. Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to 38. Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to 39. Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to 40. Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to 41. Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropr 42. Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most ap 43. Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most ap 44. Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most ap 45. Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most ap 46. Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most ap 47. Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most ap 48. Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most ap 49. Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most ap 50. Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most app
General Science
1. Which one of the following statements about earthquake waves is not correct? 2. The commercial unit of electrical energy is kilowatt-hour (kWh), which is equal to 3. Which one of the following statements regarding a current-carrying solenoid is not correct? 4. An object is made of two equal parts by volume; one part has density ρ0, and the other part has density 2ρ0. What is the 5. A pressure cooker cooks food faster by 6. Which one of the following wavelengths corresponds to the wavelength of X-rays? 7. An electric bulb is connected to 220 V generator. The current drawn is 600 mA. What is the power of the bulb? 8. When the pitch of sound increases, which one of the following increases? 9. Which one of the following is the correct reactivity series with water? 10. Which one of the following metals floats in cold water? 11. Which one of the following solutions is not capable of conducting electricity? 12. To help deep-sea divers breathe, they carry cylinders of oxygen mixed with 13. Which of the following compounds undergoes/undergo thermal decomposition? 14. The transfer of electrical signals by nerve cells in human body is enabled by 15. Silver artifacts get tarnished in the air due to the formation of 16. Human eye can see objects at different distances with contrasting illuminations. This is due to 17. Which one of the following hormones increases the heartbeat in mammals? 18. The digestion of fat in human intestine is performed by 19. Which one of the following statements about animal cells and plant cells is correct? 20. Lymph is a tissue fluid present in intercellular spaces. It resembles to 21. The breakdown of glucose in cytoplasm results in the formation of 22. What is the nature of velocity-time graph for a car moving with uniform acceleration? 23. The amplitude of sound waves is measured in the units of 24. A current of 0.6 A is drawn by an electric bulb for 10 minutes. Which one of the following is the amount of electric cha 25. A DC generator works on the principle of 26. The presence of magnetic field can be determined using which one of the following instruments? 27. Which one of the following statements about speed and velocity is correct? 28. Bronze is an alloy of 29. Which one of the following salts does not possess water of crystallization? 30. Bee sting leaves an acid which causes pain and irritation. The acid released is 31. Liquid vegetable oils are converted to solid margarine by the use of 32. The number of structural isomers of pentane is 33. Vapours of sulphur escaping from a volcano often form a crust on the rocks. The process involved is an example 34. Dry ice is used on a performing stage to produce mist in air. The process involved is an example of 35. C4H8 belongs to the homologous series of 36. The protein-digesting enzyme secreted by the stomach wall in case of mammals is called 37. Which one of the following will be resulted when an animal cell is surrounded by a medium with lower concentration of wa 38. The digestive enzymes are present in 39. After fertilization, the fruit and the seed are produced by 40. Two convex lenses have focal lengths of 50 cm and 25 cm, respectively. If these two lenses are placed in contact, then t 41. Which one of the following terms cannot represent electrical power in a circuit? 42. The refractive index of crown glass is close to 3/2. If the speed of light in air is c, then the speed of light in the c 43. The volume of a sealed packet is 1 liter and its mass is 800 g. The packet is first put inside the water with a density 44. A simple pendulum having bob of mass m and length of string l has time period of T. If the mass of the bob is doubled an 45. In which one of the following devices, the light energy is converted into the electrical energy? 46. SONAR is a device that is used to measure the distance of underwater objects by a ship. Which of the following types of 47. Which one of the following statements about the speed of sound waves is not correct? 48. The part of the human ear that converts the pressure variations associated with audible sound waves to electrical signal 49. Which one of the following metals is most commonly used for making filament of incandescent electric bulbs? 50. A bullet of mass 10 g is horizontally fired with velocity 300 m s-1 from a pistol of mass 1 kg. What is the recoil veloc 51. A microphone converts
General Studies
1. Which one of the following was composed by Harishena? 2. Consider the following events :
1. Establishment of the Planning Commission
2. Formation of the Nationa 3. Which one of the following battles could be seen as laying the formal foundation of the British Raj in India?& 4. Where in South India did the British East India Company construct a trading post in 1639? 5. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Dutch East India Company was formed after the format 6. In India, a cultivable land which is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than five years is labell 7. The major portion of the Great Artesian Basin in Australia is located in 8. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. India has one of the longest navigable inland water networks 9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I
10. Rafael Nadal defeated whom among the following to win the French Open Tennis Tournament, 2022? 11. eSanjeevani, the free telemedicine service of the Government of India, was recently integrated with the 12. Which of the following statements about ‘SHRESHTA’ scheme, launched recently by the Government of India, is/are correct? 13. In a recent judgement, the Supreme Court of India directed that every protected forest, national park and wildlife sanct 14. Who among the following is the author of the book, Tomb of Sand? 15. Who among the following invented the flying shuttle? 16. Where did Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose announce the formation of the Government of Free India in 1943? 17. Who among the following introduced the ‘Objective Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly on 13th December, 19 18. Consider the following historical events :
1. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
2. Second Round Table Conference
3. Pe 19. Which of the following statements about the Unionist Party is/are correct?
1. It was a political party representin 20. Which one of the following statements about metamorphic rocks is not correct? 21. Which one of the following ‘discontinuities’ separates the Earth’s crust from the mantle? 22. Which one of the following cities of the world would represent the greatest linear velocity of rotation of the Earth? 23. What will happen if you are flying east across the International Date Line? 24. The Prime Meridian does not pass through which one of the following African countries? 25. Piecing together the puzzle of geologic time to create and analyze historical maps of the Earth is known as 26. Which among the following has initiated a nationwide flagship campaign ‘Puneet Sagar Abhiyan’ to clean seashores/ ‘beach 27. Which among the following was the host country of the United Nations World Environment Day, 2022? 28. Which of the following Indian Naval Ships were decommissioned in June 2022? 29. India signed a deal with which one of the following countries to supply MH-60R helicopters to the Indian Navy? 30. With reference to India’s defence, the terms ‘Surat’ and ‘Udaygiri’ refer to 31. Who among the following laid the foundation of the Vijayanagara Empire? 32. The book, Kalila wa Dimna is an Arabic translation of the 33. Who among the following initiated the Bhoodan Movement? 34. Which one of the following rivers in India was not crossed by Alexander and his army? 35. Who among the following has described the medieval Indian postal system as of two kinds—the horse-post called 36. At which among the following Harappan sites are fire altars found? 37. Consider the following statements on computation of density :
1. Physiological density can be computed by div 38. The formation of ‘tors’ on small rocky hills is associated with which among the following? 39. Consider the following statements about anticyclones :
1. Anticyclones are high pressure systems.
2. Air in 40. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Earth’s crust is brittle in nature.
2. The mean thi 41. In January 2020, the administration of which of the following Union Territories has been merged together? 42. Which one of the following is not a power of Panchayats under Article 243G? 43. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I
44. Who among the following is the author of the Hastyayurveda ? 45. Which one of the following areas was acquired by the British under the Treaty of Deogaon, 1803? 46. Consider the following statements :
1. Maharashtra State has the maximum share of national highways (length i 47. The activities or services focussed on creation, rearrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas are referred 48. Consider the following statements about ‘Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik (UDAN)’ scheme :
1. It is an innovative scheme to 49. Consider the following statements :
1. The Sharavati river creates Jog Falls.
2. The Brahmani river is forme
1
NDA General Ability 4 September 2022
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1.33
Consider the following statements about ‘Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik (UDAN)’ scheme :
1. It is an innovative scheme to develop the regional aviation market.
2. It creates affordability yet economically viable and profitable flight on regional routes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
2
NDA General Ability 4 September 2022
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1.33
Consider the following statements :
1. The Sharavati river creates Jog Falls.
2. The Brahmani river is formed by the confluence of the Kosi and Sankh rivers.
3. The Tamraparni is a river of Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
None
Paper analysis
Total Questions
English
50
General Science
51
General Studies
49
More papers of NDA
NDA Mathematics 21 April 2024
NDA General Ability 21 April 2024
NDA Mathematics 3 September 2023
NDA General Ability 3 September 2023
NDA Mathematics 16 April 2023
NDA General Ability 16 April 2023
NDA Mathematics 4 September 2022
NDA General Ability 4 September 2022
NDA Mathematics 10 April 2022
NDA General Ability 10 April 2022
NDA
Papers
2023