1
KCET 2017
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+1
-0

If $A=\frac{1}{\pi}\left|\begin{array}{ll}\sin ^{-1}(\pi x) & \tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{\pi}\right) \\ \sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{\pi}\right) & \cot ^{-1}(\pi x)\end{array}\right|$

$B=\left|\begin{array}{cc}-\cos ^{-1}(\pi x) & \tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{\pi}\right) \\ \sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{\pi}\right) & -\tan ^{-1}(\pi x)\end{array}\right|$,

then $A-B$ is :

A
0
B
$\frac{1}{2}$ I
C
$/$
D
$2!$
2
KCET 2017
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+1
-0
If ${ }^n C_{12}={ }^n C_8$, then $n$ is equal to
A
12
B
20
C
26
D
6
3
KCET 2017
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+1
-0

The probability distribution of $X$ is

$$ \begin{array}{|c|l|c|c|c|} \hline \boldsymbol{X} & 0 & 1 & 2 & 3 \\ \hline \boldsymbol{P}(\boldsymbol{X}) & 0.3 & k & 2 k & 2 k \\ \hline \end{array} $$

$$ \text { The value of } k \text { is } $$
A
0.7
B
0.3
C
1
D
0.14
4
KCET 2017
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+1
-0
The degree of the differential equation $\left[1+\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^2\right]^2=\frac{d^2 y}{d x^2}$ is
A
3
B
2
C
1
D
4
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