If the social inequality is the most acutely felt social problem in India, insecurity, more than poverty, is the most acutely felt economic problem. Besides those below the official poverty line, even those just over the poverty line are subject to multiple economic insecurities of various kinds (due to wealth and/or health risks, market fluctuations, job-related uncertainties). Many Government policies are actually intended towards mitigating these insecurities.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage?
If the social inequality is the most acutely felt social problem in India, insecurity, more than poverty, is the most acutely felt economic problem. Besides those below the official poverty line, even those just over the poverty line are subject to multiple economic insecurities of various kinds (due to wealth and/or health risks, market fluctuations, job-related uncertainties). Many Government policies are actually intended towards mitigating these insecurities.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
I. People above the poverty line also are prone to suffer from anxiety about economic insecurity.
II. Eradication of poverty can result in peace and social equality in the country.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
One of the dismal realities agricultural sector in independent India has been that it never experienced a high-growth phase, unlike the non-agricultural economy. The highest decadal growth (compound annual growth rate or CAGR) for agriculture has been just $3.5 \%$ in the 1980s. Also, after experiencing a spurt in decadal growth during the 1980s, agricultural growth suffered relative stagnation thereafter. This is in sharp contrast to non-agricultural growth, which consistently increased from the 1980s to 2000s.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the corollary to the above passage?
One of the dismal realities agricultural sector in independent India has been that it never experienced a high-growth phase, unlike the non-agricultural economy. The highest decadal growth (compound annual growth rate or CAGR) for agriculture has been just $3.5 \%$ in the 1980s. Also, after experiencing a spurt in decadal growth during the 1980s, agricultural growth suffered relative stagnation thereafter. This is in sharp contrast to non-agricultural growth, which consistently increased from the 1980s to 2000s.
With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
The growing divergence between the fortunes of the agricultural and non-agricultural economy in India could have been economy reduced/contained by:
I. adapting large-scale cultivation of commercial crops and viable corporate farming.
II. providing free insurance for all crops and heavily subsidising seeds, fertilisers, electricity and farm machinery at par with developed countries.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
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