The statement $$(p \wedge(\sim q)) \vee((\sim p) \wedge q) \vee((\sim p) \wedge(\sim q))$$ is equivalent to _________.

The value of $${{{e^{ - {\pi \over 4}}} + \int\limits_0^{{\pi \over 4}} {{e^{ - x}}{{\tan }^{50}}xdx} } \over {\int\limits_0^{{\pi \over 4}} {{e^{ - x}}({{\tan }^{49}}x + {{\tan }^{51}}x)dx} }}$$ is

The random variable $$\mathrm{X}$$ follows binomial distribution $$\mathrm{B}(\mathrm{n}, \mathrm{p})$$, for which the difference of the mean and the variance is 1 . If $$2 \mathrm{P}(\mathrm{X}=2)=3 \mathrm{P}(\mathrm{X}=1)$$, then $$n^{2} \mathrm{P}(\mathrm{X}>1)$$ is equal to :

The range of $$f(x)=4 \sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{x^{2}}{x^{2}+1}\right)$$ is