$$\sum\limits_{r=1}^{20}\left(r^{2}+1\right)(r !)$$ is equal to

For $$I(x)=\int \frac{\sec ^{2} x-2022}{\sin ^{2022} x} d x$$, if $$I\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=2^{1011}$$, then

If the solution curve of the differential equation $$\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{x+y-2}{x-y}$$ passes through the points $$(2,1)$$ and $$(\mathrm{k}+1,2), \mathrm{k}>0$$, then

Let $$y=y(x)$$ be the solution curve of the differential equation $$ \frac{d y}{d x}+\left(\frac{2 x^{2}+11 x+13}{x^{3}+6 x^{2}+11 x+6}\right) y=\frac{(x+3)}{x+1}, x>-1$$, which passes through the point $$(0,1)$$. Then $$y(1)$$ is equal to :